Landlord
Banned
Doesn't really matter who wanted what in which Amendment because only what's in the actual Amendment got ratified by the States.
The author argued for including the phrase, "and subject to the jurisdiction thereof", which is in the amendment, precisely for the purpose of making a distinction towards people not here legally. The argument being that illegal immigrants are not subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
Right? Or am I reading/understanding this wrong?